West RX-7 Forum Serving California, Nevada, Arizona, Hawaii

88 on the way but having paperwork confusion

Old Apr 6, 2011 | 12:30 PM
  #1  
NatAsRex7's Avatar
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From: crater on mars
CA 88 on the way but having paperwork confusion

im currently in the process of buying a 88 gtu fc for a grand. it has a clean interior, straight body, new clutch, efan, aluminum rad, hids, aero mirrors, t2 hood and only 90xxx miles. i mean for a grand who wouldnt?! all i need to do is change the slave cylinder then i can drive it out of his lot.

the guy who is selling me the car has the title from the 1st owner that isnt signed off to the second owner (the person who owned the car before the guy thats trying to sell me the car). The bill of sale from the 1st to 2nd owner is both signed. There is no title from the 2nd owner so im guessing that the 2nd owner never put it under his name. The second owner signed the bill of sale and left the "buyers" part blank. Would i have to just sign the the "buyers" part on the bill of sale and register it under my name? The thing that worries me is that the title is not signed from the first owner ever releasing it off to the 2nd owner but there is a bill of sale, signed with the signatures from the 1st and 2nd owner, that proves that it was sold. I dont want to go through the hassle of getting signatures from the previous owners because those people are probably unreachable.
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Old Apr 6, 2011 | 01:34 PM
  #2  
Mutaku's Avatar
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From: Murica
Originally Posted by NatAsRex7
im currently in the process of buying a 88 gtu fc for a grand. it has a clean interior, straight body, new clutch, efan, aluminum rad, hids, aero mirrors, t2 hood and only 90xxx miles. i mean for a grand who wouldnt?! all i need to do is change the slave cylinder then i can drive it out of his lot.

the guy who is selling me the car has the title from the 1st owner that isnt signed off to the second owner (the person who owned the car before the guy thats trying to sell me the car). The bill of sale from the 1st to 2nd owner is both signed. There is no title from the 2nd owner so im guessing that the 2nd owner never put it under his name. The second owner signed the bill of sale and left the "buyers" part blank. Would i have to just sign the the "buyers" part on the bill of sale and register it under my name? The thing that worries me is that the title is not signed from the first owner ever releasing it off to the 2nd owner but there is a bill of sale, signed with the signatures from the 1st and 2nd owner, that proves that it was sold. I dont want to go through the hassle of getting signatures from the previous owners because those people are probably unreachable.
Maybe someone else can give you some better info, but my advice would be to speak to your local DMV. If possible have the paperwork and maybe the seller with you so you guys can bang this out and make sure it goes as smooth as possible.
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Old Apr 8, 2011 | 02:36 AM
  #3  
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From: Vallejo, Ca
I would ask the the 2nd owner if its registered in his name. It should be. If it is, you can do a paperless title transfer(no pink slip). The current registered owner has to help fill out the paperless title transfer to you. If it is still in the previous owners name then I would get a hold of him cause only he can sign the paper. You don't wanna fill out the blank bill of sale and assume. From what I know the bill of sale doesn't count like a pink slip. The previous owner most likely filled out the release of liability which has the current owners name. So the records will miss match and may cause a red flag at the dmv end. If it helps, I just bought my Turbo II and registered it yesterday. The lady didn't care to see my bill of sale, just the signed pink slip. I hope this helps a bit.
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